CS0-003최신시험기출문제모음, CS0-003최신버전시험덤프자료
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CompTIA CS0-003 시험요강:
| 주제 | 소개 |
|---|---|
| 주제 1 |
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| 주제 2 |
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| 주제 3 |
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| 주제 4 |
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시험패스에 유효한 CS0-003최신 시험 기출문제 모음 인증시험 기출문제
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최신 CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-003 무료샘플문제 (Q42-Q47):
질문 # 42
A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan on the corporate assets and finds the following vulnerabilities:
System | Vulnerability | CVSS Severity Score
System A | Buffer overflow | 9.5
System B | Remote code execution | 9.8
System C | DDoS | 8.2
System D | XSS | 8.6
The vulnerability manager reviews the analyst's recommendations and asks the analyst to add more information in order to confirm prioritization. Which of the following best explains the reason the manager requests more information?
- A. Host criticality is unknown.
- B. SLA information is missing.
- C. Existing KPIs were not measured.
- D. Zero-day vulnerabilities were excluded.
정답:A
설명:
The correct answer is A because CVSS severity alone is not enough to confirm remediation priority. The vulnerability manager needs to know the criticality of the affected hosts/assets. For example, a slightly lower CVSS vulnerability on a public-facing, business-critical system may require faster remediation than a higher CVSS vulnerability on a low-value internal system.
The CySA+ All-in-One guide states that remediation priority should consider exploitability, whether a vulnerability is weaponized, patch availability, and asset value and criticality. It also explains that analysts must consider business impact when deciding how to remediate vulnerabilities.
The Secbay CySA+ guide also explains that vulnerability prioritization should evaluate severity, exploitability, and the criticality of affected systems, including business operations, data sensitivity, and regulatory impact.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B is incorrect because SLA information determines remediation timelines after priority is established.
C is incorrect because KPIs measure performance, not asset priority.
D is incorrect because the scenario does not state these are zero-day vulnerabilities.
질문 # 43
Which of the following should be configured in a WAF to mitigate an RCE attack?
- A. Stored procedure in the database
- B. Rule to detect and block OS commands
- C. Rate control in deny mode
- D. Parameterized queries
정답:B
설명:
The correct answer is B. Rule to detect and block OS commands . A remote code execution attack allows an attacker to execute malicious code or operating system commands on a target system. Since the question asks what should be configured in a WAF , the best answer is a WAF rule that detects and blocks command- execution patterns, such as attempts to invoke shell commands, command separators, or dangerous OS-level functions.
Exact supporting extract: the All-in-One CySA+ guide states that remote code execution describes an attacker's ability to execute malicious code on a target platform and may allow arbitrary command execution . It also lists application firewalls as a direct RCE mitigation because they monitor and filter traffic to an application and block suspicious or malicious traffic.
The Secbay CySA+ guide also explains that WAFs filter and monitor HTTP traffic between a web application and the internet, and that WAF rules are configured to block known attack patterns and common web application vulnerabilities.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Rate control in deny mode is more useful for throttling abuse, brute-force attempts, scraping, or denial-of- service-style traffic, not specifically RCE.
C). Parameterized queries are a strong mitigation for SQL injection, but they are implemented in application
/database code, not configured in a WAF.
D). Stored procedure in the database is database-side logic and does not directly configure the WAF to detect or block RCE payloads.
B is best because RCE commonly involves malicious command execution, and the WAF should block those command patterns before they reach the application.
질문 # 44
Executives at an organization email sensitive financial information to external business partners when negotiating valuable contracts. To ensure the legal validity of these messages, the cybersecurity team recommends a digital signature be added to emails sent by the executives.
Which of the following are the primary goals of this recommendation? (Choose two.)
- A. Confidentiality
- B. Authorization
- C. Non-repudiation
- D. Integrity
- E. Anonymity
- F. Privacy
정답:C,D
설명:
Digital signatures ensure the integrity and non-repudiation of emails. Integrity ensures that the message has not been altered in transit, as the digital signature would be invalidated if the content were tampered with. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender cannot deny having sent the email, as the digital signature is unique to their identity.
질문 # 45
Which of the following describes the importance of an organization understanding SLOs when outsourcing incident response to a third party?
- A. To track the performance of specific KPIs
- B. To ensure that an objective risk score can be calculated
- C. To understand the hidden costs of an SLA
- D. To quantify the risk appetite in an MOU
정답:A
설명:
The correct answer is A because SLOs - service-level objectives are measurable targets used to evaluate whether a service or process is meeting expected performance levels. When incident response is outsourced to a third party, SLOs help the organization measure whether the provider is meeting key performance expectations, such as detection time, response time, remediation time, and reporting quality.
Exact supporting extract: the Secbay CySA+ guide defines SLOs as specific, measurable targets set for the performance and reliability of a service or process. It also states that SLOs provide a framework for defining and measuring effectiveness, and that reporting on SLOs allows stakeholders to assess performance and make informed decisions.
The same guide explains that SLOs depict explicit measurements and may be set by a company or defined as part of a service-level agreement with a service provider. It also states that estimating whether SLOs are being met is a typical component of SLA management.
The official CySA+ objectives include SLOs under metrics and KPIs for reporting and communication.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B is incorrect because SLOs are performance targets, not a method for identifying hidden costs.
C is incorrect because SLOs may support risk management, but they do not directly calculate an objective risk score.
D is incorrect because risk appetite is a governance/risk-management concept, not the purpose of SLOs.
A is correct because SLOs allow the organization to measure third-party IR performance against defined KPIs.
질문 # 46
After completing a review of network activity. the threat hunting team discovers a device on the network that sends an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily at 10:00 p.m. Which of the following is potentially occurring?
- A. Irregular peer-to-peer communication
- B. Rogue device on the network
- C. Abnormal OS process behavior
- D. Data exfiltration
정답:D
설명:
Data exfiltration is the theft or unauthorized transfer or movement of data from a device or network. It can occur as part of an automated attack or manually, on-site or through an internet connection, and involve various methods. It can affect personal or corporate data, such as sensitive or confidential information. Data exfiltration can be prevented or detected by using compression, encryption, authentication, authorization, and other controls1 The network activity shows that a device on the network is sending an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily at 10:00 p.m. This could indicate that the device is compromised by malware or an insider threat, and that the email is used to exfiltrate data from the network to an external party. The email could contain attachments, links, or hidden data that contain the stolen information. The timing of the email could be designed to avoid detection by normal network monitoring or security systems.
질문 # 47
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